Search results
The easiest dissonant "chord" would be something like a V7 (let's say G7 in Cmajor) which uses the 7th interval as the dissonant, leading tone to guide the ear back to I. Essentially, you are looking at VII and II as being your predominantly dissonant intervals, while III and VI will be harmonic.
30 paź 2011 · The perfect unison, with a 1:1 ratio (e.g., C played with the same C), has perfect consonance. C to the next G has a 2:3 ratio; the perfect fifth is the next most consonant. The minor second (e.g., C to C#) is the most dissonant in Western scales with a frequency ratio of 15:16.
The consonance or dissonance of a chord is related, but it's not a very strong relationship in many cases. The best example I can think of is sometimes a very dissonant, tense chord structure resolves to a target chord. For instance C#dim7 may resolve to Dmin7, or Eb7#11 may resolve to Dmaj7.
I doesn’t sound dissonant to you because you have a ear preset to the maj 7 chord (or a minor add 9-chord). You therefore have the resolution already in your mind. The two notes B and C put together in close proximity sounds perfect together if you resolve the dissonance afterwards with A and C.
By-the-book music theory tells you that if you play a dissonant chord, you need to resolve that dissonance by playing a consonant chord just after (and not any consonant chord either, there are lotsa rulez to pick the right one)
TL;DR: When chords resolve in a progression, it means you are moving from a place of dissonance to a place of stability to create the effect of travilling to a "home". There are different factors impacting how a resolution feels and sounds.
Why does the dominant chord contain a flattened 7th while this tone is not even in the scale? Let's take, for example, a C7 chord. It is a 1-3-5-b7 of a C scale (C-E-G-B♭). But the C-major scale does not contain B♭. So why do we use a flattened 7th in a dominant chord? It sounds dissonant.
